Vet360 Vol 4 Issue 3 June 2017 Vet360 - Page 21

CPD ACCREDITED ARTICLE CPD Questions AC/1694/17 QUESTION 1-5: REFER TO GENERICS ARTICLE ON PAGE 16 1. Which one of the following statements regarding bioequivalence is CORRECT? a. Bioequivalence means the medications has the same active ingre- dient b. Bioequivalence is the comparison between the plasma profile of the test product and reference product c. Bioequivalence means the medications have the same pharmaco- dynamics d. Bioequivalence is the maintained for a medication between spe- cies e. Bioequivalence mechanisms are independent of pharmocokinetics 2. Which statement below is the most CORRECT definition of phar- macokinetics? a. Pharmacokinetics is the study of the drug in vivo b. Pharmacokinetics is the study of the movement of drug through the body c. Pharmacokinetics is the study of the effect of the drug within the body d. Phamacokintetics is evaluated by measuring the peak level of the drug in the plasma e. Pharmacockinetics evaluates the chemical change occurring in the drug within the plasma 3. Which one of the factors below does NOT affect absorption of a drug? a. The site of administration b. The amount administered c. The drugs chemical profile d. The ability of the body to remove the drug e. The rate of drug administration 4. Which one of the statements below is CORRECT ? a. If two drugs achieve the same concentration in the plasma, they are not necessarily equally as effective. b. The formulation controls the time to a drug’s first effect, the de- gree of effect but does not affect the degree of side effects c. The chemical forms of the active ingredient are all equally effective d. Efficacy can be presumed if a formulation has the same active as another product e. In pharmacokinetics the key controlling aspect is the drug formu- lation which controls absorption and elimination. 5. Which of the one of the factors listed below is INCORRECT with regard to generic medications? a. A generic drug is a formulation that contains the same active in- gredient as the innovator b. A generic drug is registered through an abbreviated process known as bioequivalence c. Generic compounds are generally simple formulations and don’t need to comply with GMP requirements d. For bioequivalence, each profile has to be compared for each route for which the drug is registered e. For bioequivalence each profile has to be compared to each spe- cies for which the drug is registered. QUESTIONS 6 – 10: REFER TO PATELLA ARTICLE ON PAGE 12 6. Which one of the following statements regarding patella luxation is CORRECT? a. Medial patella luxation (MPL) is a common traumatic orthopaedic condition of the canine patient. b. Small breed dogs are more commonly affected by MPL than large breed dogs. c. Lateral patella luxation is more common than medial patella luxa- tion in large breed dogs d. MPL can also be seen in cats, the surgical management is more complex than in dogs. e. Tibial deformity consistently underlies the development of MPL in dogs 7. Which one of the following statements regarding the diagnosis of MPL is CORRECT? a. Radiographs are generally not required to diagnose MPL - it is a clinical diagnosis b. MPLis a significant cause of middle age onset of lameness in small breed dogs c. Concurrent conditions such as cranial cruciate rupture may often cause the clinical lameness in small breed dogs with MPL d. These patients may also have distal femoral valgus and hypoplasia of the lateral femoral condyle e. The grading system for MPL is helpful to plan a surgical strategy 8. Which one of the statements regarding the surgical repair of patel- la luxation listed below is most CORRECT? a. Surgical repair of patella luxation should be performed on any small breed patient showing greater than a grade 2 luxation. b. Surgery should be performed in young animals to prevent the long-term complications later on in life from the patella luxation. c. It has been shown that soft tissue procedures performed without correction of the bone deformities is an acceptable approach as a sole method. d. Complications using the TCT in combination with soft tissue repair techniques are low e. Surgical repair most often utilizes one or the other of either soft tissue repair or bone repair to reposition the patella 9. Which of the following statements regarding the RidgeStop™ are INCORRECT? a. It is a high-density polyurethane implant placed on the medial trochlear ridge requiring 3 bone screws to accurately secure the implant b. It should only be used alone in cases of mild patella luxations with no marked bone deformity of the leg. c. It can be used together with the bone corrective techniques to augment repair. d. The RidgeStop™ method is combined with the trochlearplasty to give best repositioning of the patella e. It adds significantly to the cost of the surgical procedure 10. A tibial crest transplant has been the standard operation used for re-alignment of the bony structures. Which of the statements be- low is INCORRECT? a. This technique is simple to perform but can have catastrophic complications. b. The complication rate varies from 9-50% for a tibial crest trans- plant. c. Of the cases which develop recurrent patella luxation, all will show clinical signs of lameness d. Complications seen are tibial crest fracture , tibial crest infection and tibial fracture e. Implant migration will not affect outcome after clinical union has occurred. Issue 03 | JUNE 2017 | 21